Ok here's the situation, a close friend of mine came to a stop and exited his viehicle on private property. At this point of exiting the vehicle, he came to notice a silenced cruiser behind (no lights or visible indication that the officer was intent on stopping his vehicle) The officer demanded his proof of insurance and idicated that his tags were not registered to that particular vehicle. He was cited for no insurance, and missuse of expired licencing tags. I know from a personal experience from an accident on private property of a mall parking lot, that unless the owner of the property in which the offence was commited on enlists the services of the police to handle the matter, they have no jurisdiction if there is no offence commited justifying arrest of a criminal nature.
My question is... can a police officer charge you with these violations if he A) did not idicate on a public road via his emergency lighting that he wished you to stop. (entrapment?)
B) Can violation citations for tags and insurance be imposed on private property without the property owners consent.
It was not until he was exited the vehicle, turned the vehicle off, and was standing on private property when the officer approached him directly to indicate he had an issue with his vehicle.
I would also like to point out the vehicle was also taken from the private property and impounded without justification from the property owner.
If I am wrong about this... then the police have alot of cars they should be collecting in peoples driveways and garage's for improper registration and insurance.
The officer claims he saw him drive the vehicle on a public road here in ontario.. However the officer did not stop him on said public property.
For all the officer knew.. he was merely testing the engine in a driveway..