Last week I received a ticket from a speed trap just outside of Cambridge. The officer was parked in a private drive way that was marked with no trespassing signs. There was no shoulder on this stretch of road to pull over into so i was ushered into a merging lane from the drive way. My questions are 1. can he run a trap and issue tickets on private property without the owners consent? It was marked no trespassing. 2. Where he pulled me over was still on the road, in a lane. Can he do this? 3. If there is no shoulder would the property line come right to the road? Here is a google map of the location in question: https://www.google.ca/maps/@43.3594302, ... a=!3m1!1e3 https://www.google.ca/maps/@43.3593272, ... 312!8i6656 He was hiding behind the pole. Any insight would be great. Thanks. DSFX.
Last week I received a ticket from a speed trap just outside of Cambridge. The officer was parked in a private drive way that was marked with no trespassing signs. There was no shoulder on this stretch of road to pull over into so i was ushered into a merging lane from the drive way.
My questions are
1. can he run a trap and issue tickets on private property without the owners consent? It was marked no trespassing.
2. Where he pulled me over was still on the road, in a lane. Can he do this?
3. If there is no shoulder would the property line come right to the road?
Whether or not the officer was standing on private property is going to be irrelevant. That's an issue (if there is one) between the property owner and the officer.
Whether or not the officer was standing on private property is going to be irrelevant. That's an issue (if there is one) between the property owner and the officer.
Hi everyone. I'm asking for a friend who has a question of interpretation.
He was ticketed for using a hand-held device. He contends that he was acting within the exemption provided under Subsection 14 (1) of O. Reg. 366/09, which reads as follows (emphasis added):
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I posted this in the 3 Demerit Section and haven't received any
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