thank you but your reply was ambiguous. researching further, i found the following regulation, O/Reg 613:
10. Where a motor vehicle manufactured without seat belt assemblies for each seating position and not modified so that there is a seat belt assembly for each seating position is driven on a highway,
(a) the driver is exempt from the requirement of subsection 106 (2) of the Act to wear a seat belt assembly if there is no seat belt assembly at the drivers seating position;
(b) a passenger is exempt from the requirement of subsection 106 (3) of the Act to wear a seat belt assembly if the passenger occupies a position without a seat belt assembly and there is no other available seating position with a seat belt assembly; and
depending on how to interpret (b), he might be exempt. he was "occupying a position without a seat belt assembly" and there was no available seating position with a seat belt assembly. i notice also that it says "occupying a position... no available SEATING position." in other words, the first "position" is not qualified by the adjective "seating" and so it looks like the first "position" wouldn't have to be a factory-installed seat or anything. could be any position at all.
does anyone know if this is a valid interpretation? has anyone seen case law on this point?
further, what about the fact that he literally cannot afford the ticket. is he supposed to take a loan to do so? thats just ridiculous and unfair. is there no way to argue that the size of the penalty causes undue hardship?